That just does not make sense to me.
Today I’m going from 6mg/weekly on an empty stomach, to the same but with 3.75 ounces of sardines in olive oil in an attempt to ^ blood levels.
Now, answer this: I do the above for 4 weeks. Then, on the 5th, I get a blood level 2.5 hours after ingestion, then let’s say, at 3pm the next day (day 2), and another at 3pm on day 5.
We know that rapa dives on day one, it’s bimodal (I think). I have max blood level and I can estimate my excretion half-life such that I’m sure that by day, what, 5,6 or 7, it’s subclinical, as it should be.
Then for the next 10 weeks I do the same as above.
Why would I not, with that data,now know the dose?
And w/ GFJ. If I bought, for instance 5 bottles of GFJ, drank, let’s say 5 ounces w/ the Sirolimus and take 2mg, I might get the same result as 8-12mg. Then, if I do the blood testing it seems that I would “know” what dose I was getting.
Heck, take a bottle, divide it into 5, 6oz units, put it into a container and freeze. Then, you have the same batch of GFJ and 5 bottles would give you a fairly reliable “knowable” dose response for the next 30 weekly doses. Buy 10 bottles, now you have defined your GFJ for over a year.
Occasionally pull a 2.5 hour dose to check. The elimination half-life should remain stable, it seems.
Am I missing something?